Thermal capillary waves
Hello, now I'm writing the same article for Russian wikipedia. While I was deducing the expression for mean square amplitude I found my result to be two times less than common one (that is in Molecular Theory of Capillarity and refered to in many articles). Could you please tell me weather I am right or not.
I claim that the mean energy of each mode is rather than . That's because each mode has to degrees of freedom and , since each wave is , with the energy of each mode proportional to . This obviously lead to the mean energy of each mode to be . That was the real notation and now lets turn to the complex notation.
Each mode with the fixed wave vector is presented as , — wave vector, — vector. The energy is proportional to (indeed it is ). According to equipartition:
we obtain:
And again we get the same result. What do you think of it? Is there a mistake? Please help, I'm really stuck with it. Grigory Sarnitskiy. 91.76.179.101 19:45, 30 January 2009 (CET)